This rumor has been floating around the web and the christian community for quite some time now and I thought it was about time that I addressed it once and for all.
Was King James A homosexual?
Although there are many accusations about James VI (King James) being gay, there is no solid evidence that backs the claim apart from old English stories that could or could NOT be true.
So What Do We Know About King James perception of Homosexuality?
Despite the rumors about King James being a secret homosexual, It was never openly published or announced by him. In fact, the only thing that was openly published was King James opposition to homosexuality.
King James offered severe punishments and made Sodomy A crime all throughout England.
Why Does This Matter?
Actually, It doesn’t. The bottom-line is that no one knows for a Fact whether King James was a homosexual or not. But for the sake of argument, lets hypothetically say that he was a homosexual….
What Difference does it Make?
King James did NOT write the Bible, but because he was the King of England at the time the Bible was translated into English (1604-1611)… It was his name that was published onto the ONLY English Bible.
Many people think that because King James was a homosexual, that somehow discredits his version of the Bible (KJV).
This is False.
King James had nothing to do with the words that are written on the pages, he only Signed the Checks (so-to-speak) of the people who translated it from Greek to English.
Did King James Alter The Bible to Suit Himself?
This is another question that people often assume is a result of King James Being “Allegedly” homosexual. They say that Because King James was a homosexual, he probably tampered with the scriptures in order to help protect himself and his homosexuality.
That is A logical conclusion, It would seem like Common Sense to take the parts of the Bible out that spoke against Homosexuality… Right?
But If King James was a homosexual, why did he leave these scriptures in tact?
The book Of Romans speaks explicitly against homosexuality and later, Paul makes it clear that all who do such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.
(Romans 1:26) For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
(Romans 1:27) And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another;
men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
We can clearly see from this scripture that the Apostle Paul was addressing homosexuality, and I am sure that the people in Old England knew this as well.
So the question becomes…
Why wouldn’t King James REMOVE This verse If he was homosexual?
I think If he was homosexual… He would have.
Imagine a gay King handing out Bibles to his subjects that basically reveals that he is not obeying God
… he would lose half of his Subjects.
From this evidence I believe that the only Logical explanation is that King James was NOT homosexual.
What If he WAS
Even If he was, the bottom-line is this… It doesn’t matter.
His personal Life is not what validates the pages of the bible. He was only the King of England at the time the bible was translated. (1604-1611)
For all we know, King James could have never even opened the bible to read it.
We can be sure that The KJV bible is biblically correct because we have a wide variety of tools that we can use to compare any bible version to ensure It is being used in the proper context! (Concordance, Commentaries, Translations, Manuscripts, Etc.)
About Bible Translations
A Bible Translation is nothing more than a re-written account of the Bible in a specific writing style, but as long as the context of the scripture is not tampered with, It is still a valid translation of the bible.
With that said, there are Many different translations of the Bible, (KJV, ERV, NIV, ASV, GNB, LITV)
But each of these translations are based around the same Base scriptures. Some people might interpret that all these different translations must mean that the Bible is inaccurate but this is False.
Don’t look at it as Different Versions of the Bible, instead look at it as different people saying the same thing. These translations may not say the exact sentence verbatim, but the core message of the sentence remains unchanged.
So Next time someone tells you that King James was gay, you can respond…
“No He isn’t. But even If he was, what’s your point?” 🙂